Jimmy Akin linked to this article on CNN’s website, with the desire to write a rebuttal. Akin called commentator Roland Martin an ex-Catholic, anti-Catholic bigot. In his short blog post, Akin asserts only that Martin can’t get his facts straight, with no further reply or rebuttal. If CNN won’t print the reply, hopefully he’ll post it on his blog. I’d be interested to see exactly what errors that Akin notices.
In the comments section of the blog post, a poster with the moniker Fr Bill P answers Akin detractor Jeb Protestant’s assertion that the Catholic Church doesn’t encourage Bible reading, and shows in the process that Catholics have no understanding of what sola scriptura actually means.
Well, Jeb, I was raised Baptist and was taught to use the Bible as a way of bashing Catholics and such. We were dissuaded from studying ‘troublesome passages’ like John 6, I Corithians 11, all of the Letter of James…and well pretty much everything that wasn’t written by St. Paul or was in the Apocolypse.
First Corinthians 11 and John 6 are often used as Catholic proof texts of the Eucharist. First Corinthians teaches a reverence for the Eucharist, and it teaches of Christ’s presence at the Lord’s Supper, however the concept of transubstantiation is not found there. It doesn’t teach the idea of re-presenting the sacrifice of Christ. It only teaches the Supper as a way to remember Christ–not change simple bread and wine into the literal body and the literal blood of Christ. That’s gross. Likewise, John 6 specifically teaches that Jesus is not here to give us physical food. He is here to give us spiritual food. John 6 is a symbolic passage, and makes sense in that way if studied next to the Jewish thought process of the time.
The letter of James talks quite a bit about action, which seems contradictory when placed next to Paul’s letters about salvation by grace alone through faith alone. Paul seems to be adamant that no action is required on our part, that salvation is God’s work and that we just can’t do anything but stay along for the ride. Then, here comes James with all his talk about taking action and doing something.
But there is no controversy. Paul said that we are saved by the grace of God first, and after that we will act to do good. James said that we are saved when we act on that grace and perform service pleasing with God. Which is true? Both! The infamous Internet apologist J.P. Holding wrote this essay on the semitic totality concept–that both statements are actually true at the same time and that both the grace of God combined with willing repentance and good works is actually what saves us. Making a decision means nothing without a corresponding action. Being saved, that is, thinking as a Christian should, will, according to Jewish thought, produce a corresponding change in behavior and is an inevitable fruit of true salvation.
Despite continuous citation of verses like Ephesians 2:8-10, Paul also stated the importance of good works in salvation (cf. Rom 6:1-2 and 12:1-2). Paul writes that sin means death for us, and asks the ultimate question: “Why continue to live in a way that leads to death?” It doesn’t make sense now, but it makes even less sense when read in light of the semitic totality concept.
More than likely, since Catholicism is based primarily on works (or sacraments) rather than any of the less famous Reformation solas, Fr. Bill is talking about James 5:14-15, which is a Catholic proof text of the sacrament of extreme unction (anointing of the sick). While the Scriptures certainly teach us to anoint the sick with oil and to pray over them for recovery, to define it as a sacrament (outward demonstration of God’s grace) isn’t scriptural. Got Questions Ministries provides a lengthier discussion here.
Fr. Bill is implying that ministers have no answers to these three Catholic proof texts. Therefore, by his reasoning, the Catholic Church must be correct in its ideas about transubstantiation and sacraments. For a lengthier discussion, see Got Questions Ministries’ answers to the sacraments here and to transubstantiation here.
Maybe you can answer me this as well, for a guy who things [sic] that the Bible can just picked up by anybody and read: How is it that there are 25,000+ strains of protestantism, all of whom claim to be reading the Scriptures correctly? Do we have such a low opinion of the Sacred Scriptures that we think anyone can pick it up and understand as if it were written by Dr. Suess? THe [sic] Bible is not a piece of literature to through personal biases and prooftexted [sic] to death. It wasn’t written in English. Why say that?
Twenty-five thousand? Is that the new number that Catholics are using for Protestant denominations? I’d love to see some documentation on that. Now, as for calling them “strains,” well, that’s just writing to purposely incite. Now, in my above statement, I believe it is very clear that I have treated the Scriptures with the reverence they deserve. I’m reading them by attempting to understand the thought process and culture of the time and place they were written. I also understand the limitations of any translation from one language to another. Anyone who wishes to practice sola scriptura effectively must have this knowledge, or be willing to learn it!
In regard to the typical Catholic argument that there are 25,000 varieties of Protestantism, does that imply that all Catholics are of one mind? Because even on Jimmy Akin’s website alone I see plenty of the Catholics disagreeing about not only Scriptural matters, but also interpretations of Church law and writings. If Catholics were of one mind, then organizations like Vox Populi, Married Priests NOW, and the Society of St. Pius X would never exist. [Please, no comments or e-mail that tell me that these are splinter groups that aren't true Catholics. You wouldn't accept a similar response from me about Fred Phelps.]
Fr. Bill, in his first paragraph, just threw out three Catholic proof texts. Now he is bashing Protestants for using proof texts of their pet theologies. That’s pretty inconsistent. But I suppose if I believed that only the Pope had the authority to infallibly define doctrine, then this argument would make sense.
Why he feels the need to mention that the Bible wasn’t written in English, I don’t know. That is irrelevant, especially in light of the fact that it is translated by folks who know much more than the rest of us do about the history and the context in which the Bible was written. They have also extensively studied the etymology of the languages that the Bible was written in. I trust the translations. Does Fr. Bill?
Some time ago, a person came here spouting off about how Catholics are wrong about the papacy and proceded [sic] to dress us down for not understanding our Greek (the original language of the NT) and cited the word Cephas as an example. Except Cephas is Aramiac, not Greek, and the arguemnt [sic] for ‘you are rock (Cephas/Petros) and on this rock (Cephas/petra) I build my church. An english [sic] speaker doesn’t understand the concpet [sic] of words having gender (believe me, I have taught spanish [sic]!) You wouldn’t nickname a male (Petros)by using a feminine word (Petra)even if the words had a slightly different ending. IN aramaic [sic], both are the same which only solidifies what Catholics believe.
Okay, first of all, the person who came on the blog and cited Cephas as an example of people not knowing Greek obviously didn’t do his homework. But I’m left to wonder a bit about Fr. Bill’s argumentation. He’s saying that (1) Jesus spoke Aramaic, not Greek; (2) the quote from Matthew 16:18 would therefore have been spoken in Aramaic originally; (3) words with gender in Greek would never be used to nickname a person of the opposite gender; (4) since the words are the same gender in Aramaic, it is possible that Jesus is nicknaming Peter in the Catholic way; therefore, (5) the Catholic case for this is solidified. But in Isaiah, the keys are only given to the Messiah, and there is no mention of Him passing them to an earthly successor. Further, the rest of the New Testament is firm on the fact that Jesus’ place was very unique (cf. Heb 4:14-5:10 and 1 Tim 2:5).
And, does your average reader know the significance of the Gospel placing the story in Ceseraea Philipi…where there is a large hill that essntially [sic] in a solid rock? Or does your average reader know the connection between this scripture passage and the one in Isaiah, and the historical significance of the keeper of the keys? NO, probably not. But it is OK for an average reader to look at this Scripture and get out of it whatever they think?
I think that this is a classic example of the Catholic thought that sola scriptura–scripture alone–is equivalent to “scripture in a vacuum.” No Protestant believes that, nor do we understand sola scriptura in this way. We who hold to sola scriptura believe that Scripture alone holds the only infallible source of faith and morals, and we do not use outside sources of either. However, we are only too happy to seek outside assistance with interpreting these Scriptures. We ascribe no infallibility to the interpreters the way that the Catholics do to the Pope.
Tim J, another JA.O regular, has this to say on authority to interpret:
I have believed now, for some years, that this authority is vested in the Church and especially in the Pope. If I call some teaching “out of bounds”, well, that doesn’t mean much… if the Pope says the same, it really MEANS something. In this way, He is the servant and protector of the word of God in a way you and I can never be.
Maybe someone can help me understand this. I have just said that I look for help in interpreting Scripture from friends and family and pastors. They have differing opinions of what the Scriptures say. I happen to read the Scriptures in a Calvinist light, while the rest of my family hates Calvinism. My pastor has a much more conservative view than the rest of us. I know two people who are King James Onlyists, and at least one insists that the AV 1611 is the only true Bible and that all of the other translations are corrupted tools of Satan–so fervent is this belief that it has caused him to lengthen his engagement to a wonderful girl so that they can further debate this issue.
Bottom line: we’re all human, just like the Pope. Why is his interpretation the only meaningful one?
Apostolic succession is the answer that most Catholics put forward. While they say that Peter was the first Pope, he obviously didn’t have the same powers and position as the Pope (such as papal infallibility, cf. Gal 2:11-14). In fact, it is Peter who teaches the priesthood of all believers (1 Pet 2:4-6)–which is in direct opposition to Roman Catholic theology!
Continuing now with Fr. Bill’s remarks:
The Scriptures need to be taken far more seriously and reverently than that! Maybe, just maybe, that is why the Catholic Church has not encouraged people to just pick a Bible and start reading without some serious study. The Sacred Scriptures are not some amorphous words that don’t have any centralized meaning…they are the self-communication of God with His people.
I agree, with one caveat. There is a plain meaning to most passages (e.g. Eph 2:8-10) that contradicts the Catholic teaching on the essentials of salvation. Wouldn’t the more logical reason for not wanting the general public to read the Bible be to keep them from discovering this fact?
Fr. Bill concludes:
Is this commentator a bigot? You’re damned straight he is! Catholic bashing is still the one true acceptable bias left. Considering that many protestant groups don’t even consider Catholics to be Christians, at least Catholic teaching will recognize that protestants are Christians.
Interesting that he wraps up by trying to turn the other cheek. Earlier in the post, this guy said “strains” of Protestantism, which is language that is quite inflammatory. I wonder if he can see the inconsistencies in his own position?